Whats the rule that makes "please" pronounced the same as "pleas"?
15.06.2025 02:54
Words are pronounced the way that they're pronounced.
There's no rule.
While you may reasonably ask why words are spelled the way they're spelled, it makes no sense to ask why they're pronounced the way they're pronounced.
What is the craziest thing that you've ever witnessed?
You'll usually find your answer there.
If you're curious about why a word is spelled the way it's spelled, your first recourse should be etymonline dot com.
Please is an anglicization of the French word plaisir.
What should I do if I love someone who does not love me?
Back in the day (circa 1300), it was written <plesen>.
Whence the <ea> I cannot say but some other words that were spelled <ai> in French are spelled <ea> in English: aise → ease, graisse → grease, fait → feat.
What's (not “whats”) the rule?
Pleas is spelled <pleas> because it's the plural of pleas.